SPANISH SHIPWRECK TREASURE

chris233

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Jun 1, 2007
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did you know that in europe the toilet did not exist or the sewer system. they invented that after the sacking of mexico's civilization. the civilizations allready had a sewer system with shower and toilet. that is where we get the restroom from but like always it is always a european inventor that takes the credit. anyways the spanish buried all of the pyramids that existed in mexican civilizations and on top of that they built their churches or houses or whatever. sometimes they would cut off the point of the pyramid so that they could level the ground once buried. in my uncles ranch in puebla mexico we found a hidden pyramid under a big hill. the pyramid is under all the dirt but we know it's there. I'll probably go sometime in july or august and start digging. see what we find. the tree still exists in mexico city where cortez was defeated and cried after crossing the bridge from the ancient civilizations city. all the gold was thrown into the river or lagoon and was never recovered. the lagoon was then filled with dirt and mexico built on top of it.
 

signumops

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Feb 28, 2007
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Read...

Title: The Early Spanish Main
Author Lastname: Sauer
Author Firstname: Carl
Publisher Name: Univ. of California Press
Year: 1966
Edition: 1st
Addenda: softback

You will discover why most of Latin America completely and utterly disregards ANY claims by Spain in ANY matter. It's hard to comprehend what they (Spanish) actually did. Talk about your WMD!
 

Peg Leg

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May 29, 2006
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I think the words OWNED BY SPAIN is the way Spain thought, It should be GOVERNED BY SPAIN but even that only lasted for a time.
The British thought the same thing-for a while.
NO ONE has ever OWNED AMERICA and NO ONE ever will.
There has been several Nations that had control over certain parts of this country but NEVER owned it.
Peg Leg
 

ivan salis

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quite correct florida was bought by the us- in 1819 / 1820 and finally made a state in 1845
 

Peg Leg

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May 29, 2006
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Like I said SPAIN may have owned the land but NOT the people.
One must also remember that all Spain did was plant a flag along with a few words and CLAIMED everything in their name. Other countries did the same thing.
They took control of the land and some of the people-How they were able to do this was by ARMS-BUT they NEVER owned a single thing.
Just my opinion.
PEG LEG
 

ivan salis

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but was the land really spains to sell?---ah the taking over of land by not native peoples---by force of arms normally---for the gain of wealth and power of the opressor---or colonies as their more commanly called --note as part of the deal they had to remove all the "natives" of florida onto spanish lands (read--cuba)----america did not want any of those pesky florida "native" indains to be left hanging around to claim they were screwed out of their land in the "deal"--------simple exploitation 101--ivan
 

ivan salis

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the american govt pays to native tribes that have treaties with the american govt (legal agreerments to give up their claims to the land in exchange for payments of money each year for the land they "took" from them)---the treaties---also give certian areas as the "tribal" lands to these tribes----- these are the "rez's" where many now have casinos at---these areas are their own "countries"---at one time before europeans took over florida there were native tribes who were the "normal" inhabitents of florida --the contract between spain and the usa that "sold" florid that was signed by both spain and the us stated that spain had to remove any and the all native people of florida---so that the us would not have to deal with the indain tribes of florida in anyway---so there must of been someone that could have made a claim --that the us didn't want to "deal" with otherwise why was the "clause" put in there?---Ivan
 

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Salvor6

Salvor6

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France owned most of the southern North American lands until they sold it to thr U.S. Remember the Louisiana Purchase? Napoleon sold it for $11,750,000 in gold to help pay for all his wars.
 

ivan salis

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1763 spainish to english turn over of florida--it included that ---the "local spanish subjects"--were to be removed to cuba ---unless they "swore" loyality to england and thus became english ---america had not yet revolted and was thus still a english colony at the time. ---this was pre america---the english wanted the native indains "gone" so they could do as they pleased with out interferance from anyone which regards to land claims---it was one of the things that the later american govt "learned" from their british "fore fathers"---no indains means not having to "deal" with them---and no it not "written" down---it was "understood" that it was part of the deal---the spanish hauled the floridan indains off to cuba for the most part---not all history is neatly written down in govt records ---think about who wrote the history book that your reading and think carefully as weither it is the sole and "complete truth"-- their are things unwritten --shameful and often dirty and wrong things done by govts ---it too is part of history ---it is not been recorded in the "offical records"--however it is just as real---many shameful things done by the govt over the years are not found in the "offical govt records"---Ivan
 

ivan salis

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we "americans" are largely of british decent---and 1763 in the over all history of things in not that far from 1776--a mere 13 years---1776 the revolt started --when most folks say america as such was "born" - neither the british and american way thinking of the day towards "native populations" didn't suddenly get very enlightened in a mere 13 tears ---I think---I am a proud american who knows that my country has done many great things and a few shameful ones in its past---we in 1763 were part of the british empire as you say ---its a part of history----I was just showing how the "british" style of thinking and making "land deals" in 1763 effected later american thinking---you learn form your fathers and fore barers how to deal with "others"--- this later effected the american way for dealing with the "locals" in florida when they made a deal with spain in 1819---I think this might clear up my thoughs on the matter to you--Ivan
 

Peg Leg

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May 29, 2006
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I may be wrong but when Spain was asked to remove the NATIVES there were referring to ANYONE THAT WAS SPAINISH decent or mixed blood. They were not asking Spain to remove all the NATIVE INDIANS but just the those that had mixed blood and ALL the Spanish.
My opinion.
Peg leg
 

ivan salis

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then why were just about all the native indains---removed to cuba---britain wanted the land "stripped" of anyone that was not 100% pro british loyalist--things were starting to get ugly with the colonies and britian did want any non loyalist types in florida---Ivan
 

ivan salis

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it wasn't a hard as it seems since about 80% of the indains were wiped out by warfare and european diseases that they had no natural protection from--Ivan
 

mariner

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Apr 4, 2005
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It's a little off the point, but in the American War of Independence most of the troops on the American side were British, and most of the troops on the British side were German mercenaries, recruited by the English King who was German and could speak hardly any English.

So when the British soldiers beat the German soldiers, America won its Independence from Britain.

It's a strange old world.

Mariner

Incidentally,

when you study the Spanish conquest of Mexico and the history of the people who were there before the Spanish, you will realize that the Aztecs were one of the most brutal civilizations of all time. They killed enormous numbers of people from neighboring nations by cutting out their hearts while they were still alive. Montezuma, who has received altogether too good a press, was even worse than modern dictators like Hitler and Saddam.
On the other hand, Cortes, with the exception of one or two regrettable incidents, was a fierce opponent in battle, but relatively benign in peace by the standards of the day. There is little to say in defence of Pizarro, de Soto and Guzman, who were all terribly cruel.
 

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