bigscoop
Gold Member
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The point being, or legal argument being, when the state allows "the beliefs of any religious order" to significantly effect the drafting of, or altering of, laws, has the state then actually violated the very essence of "Church & State"? Weather it was intended or not, the beliefs and influence of a single religious order have been accommodated in the drafting of common law. Hence, you now have a law that will directly effect those in opposition of this religious even though as individuals they might share the same sentiment and beliefs regarding the effected issues. Stop and think about this. Ask yourself why the Church didn't take their argument that one step further, to exclude anyone with a similar religious or moral viewpoint? They could have easily done this or at least raised this same concern in court, and yet they didn't. Why? The answer should be quite obvious.